From Property Rights to Democratic Intermediated Capitalism

Suzanne Love presents Waheed Hussain’s interpretation of how Kantian rights and democratic governments can interact with a capitalist economy, and with that, allow for a new form of “intermediated capitalism” where both democracy and capitalism can coexist on a Kantian conception of individual equal freedom. I understand why Love presents Hussain’s argument as missing 1) the Kantian conception of freedom does not rank types of freedom, so any use of this would not work and 2) establishing Kantian property rights under the Kantian public/private sphere must be necessary to define the interaction between economic rights and Kantian ideals of individual freedom. 


First, I am wondering if there is any argument of Love’s that can explain how social institutions like markets can be subject to state regulation in a Kantian sense, beyond the background justice that Kant establishes in the conventional view of property rights. In Love’s example of dating, she supports the idea that a democratic government cannot touch social institutions like dating. However, taken this way, a social institution like the free market could fall under the same definition of social institutions, eliminating the possibility of government interference. Another way to interpret would be that the Kantian perspective would argue that this institution has to be regulated by an equal individual right to freedom because it involves external interactions that thus must follow the democratic system. This brings up an interesting claim to intermediation of what is a “social institution”, but for Kant, these institutions might not be separate from his principles of justice and freedom for individuals. 


Another point that I am left confused about, is what view of Kantian property rights that Love would argue is ideal for intermediated capitalism.This led me to my main questions about the Kantian application to Capitalism itself, namely economic rights including property rights. I do not see how property rights can be directly translated into economic markets and therefore capitalism. If property rights are most directly our claim to ownership of land and of space and of products, how does this private right translate to be defined as economic rights in a democratic sense? Kant clearly argues that property is a private right that is regulated by public institutions, but he has no other qualification about economic rights “to act on the world in [material] ways” (Love 58).  In terms of economic rights, where is the line between the government ensuring background justice (as Rawls calls it) and regulating markets which could be seen as regulating individual means to their ends. 


I think there has to exist something in between property rights and economic rights in order to successfully have a  Kantian/democratic application to intermediate capitalism, however this idea would definitely differ within the three conceptions of Kantian property rights. 


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